5:17 fulfill; "to make full, fill (full)...fill (up), complete, ...finish" (BDAG, 3rd edition, pg. 828).  The commandment to love the Almighty, and to love our neighbor as ourselves may be fulfilled one day, yet the obligation to fulfill the commandment is always being renewed on the next.  Therefore, fulfilling a commandment does not mean an end of obligation to the commandment.  Yeshua makes it clear in vs. 19 that the obligation to keep the commandments does not cease.

Like a horse with blinders on so that it can only see the road ahead, Sunday Christianity has put blinders on so that it only sees the word fulfill, and only hears the word fulfill, and nothing else that Yeshua said here.  The word is a certain mantra spoken over this text, having a definition of their own making, in order to dispose of its obvious meaning.   It goes like this: "Jesus kept the law for me.  When he keeps the law for me it is fulfilled.  His virtue of keeping is reckoned (imputed,) into my account as if I kept it", and "therefore, I don't have to keep the law in order to be righteous";   this is the primary meaning they put on the word "fulfill", a whole theological rationalization.  It is part of the mystery of Lawlessness.   Supposedly, they think that Paul taught it, but the only Paul that taught it was the mistranslated Paul of the theologians. (cf. Romans 4:5).  

Others try to teach that "fulfill" means "ended" or "completed" so as to put an end to, but this contradicts the context.   If you are involved in the Sunday-Church theological system, then you are listening to a system invented by Satan.  You should get out of Babylon while you still can.  For the Almighty will destroy it.

Yeshua kept the Torah; he fulfilled prophesy, and he expounded on its meaning.  He kept Torah because he is Yahweh in the flesh, not because he was going to keep it by proxy for us, but so that he would be the perfect and acceptable sacrifice for the sins of others.  If he broke Torah, then his death would only be for his own sin.  The effect of Yeshua's death is the pay the penalty for our transgressions against Yahweh's Torah commandments.  He paid a high price to satisfy the justice of the Almighty against our sin.   Therefore, to turn around and say Christians can continue to violate the Torah, because it was magically kept for them, is to spit on and despise Yeshua's sacrifice for sin.   It is a mockery of divine justice to think that so high a price can be assigned for paying the penalty of sin, and then to assume that the Almighty does not require the keeping of His laws henceforth.

5:18 Amæn; αμην. This word is the typical Hebrew word "Amen" used by Christians and Jews everywhere:  אמן.  So everyone should already know this word.  There is no need to obscure the Hebraic nature of the text by translating it "truly", when is quite clear that a Hebrew word imported into a Greek text.  The native Greek word for truly—αληθως is not used in the text.  We can only surmise that the emissaries expected their audience to know this Hebrew word.

The meaning of the word is from the same Hebrew root as faithfulness: אמונה.   It's basic meaning is to support something.   If you support someone, then you are loyal or faithful to them.  You are committed to them.  If you support a fact or idea, then you affirm or believe it.  To say "Amæn" means to say you "support" something, you affirm it, and you agree with it.   It does not mean "the end".

5:18 yod; The smallest letter of the Hebrew alphabet /י/ sometimes omitted when it is a vowel letter or confused with /ו/.  The Greek says ιωτα which letter /ι/ is the equivalent of the Hebrew /י/. Hence, Yeshua is spelled with iota as the first letter /ישוע/,  in Greek, or the divine name /יהוה/ was spelled, ιαβε, ιαουαι with /ι/ to indicate its pronunciation (cf. HALOT).   Yeshua is saying that not the smallest part of the Torah or Prophets will be abolished.

5:18 horn; a small decoration or projection that scribes attached to certain letters of the text to indicate their importance.   It was a projection on the letter.  The Greek word according to BDAG, 3rd ed., "lit. ‘horn’, then anything that projects like a horn, projection, hook as part of a letter, a serif" (pg. 540).  Yeshua does not mean scribes will be unable to omit these marks or miscopy a yod due to carelessness as there are differences on these points in Hebrew MSS.  He is using hyperbole to say that the Torah and Prophets remain absolutely valid.

5:18 (if possible); The Greek adds a particle here, αν, meaning "perchance" or "if possible";   This is to say that Yeshua is making a hypothetical statement.  He is not saying for sure if the heaven and earth shall pass away.  He is just saying that until that possibility comes to pass that the Torah and Prophets cannot be abolished.

5:18 until; In the Hebrew sense this word does not specify termination like the English word "until".  In English we say "until" and mean that whatever is "until" is finished when the point in time is reached.  The Hebrew on the other hand only specifies that a certain state will continue "until" the point in time is reached, but does not imply termination after the point in time is reached.  It means "at least as far as"; there may be a termination, but the word does not declare it.  It leaves the matter open.  For example "until this generation shall pass" means that when that the generation that sees the rebirth of Israel shall not pass away "until" the end of the age.   In the Hebrew sense, this means "at least as far as";  however, since anyone who lives to the end of the age, and who is faithful, will never die, it follows that that generation will never pass away.   Hence "until" does not mean "termination".  In another case יהוה  declares to Ya‘aqov that, "I will not leave you until I have done what I have promised you." (Gen. 28:15).  The LXX uses εως and the MT עד.  The Almighty does not mean to say he will leave Jacob as soon as he keeps his promise.  He is saying that he will not leave at least for that long.  So Hebrew "until" is unlike the English "until".

5:20 righteousness;  Most Sunday Christians read this word and think that the only way their righteousness can exceed that of the Scribes and Pharisees is to have "imputed righteousness" legally reckoned to their account, or mystical righteousness infused in their soul.   But such righteousness is not real righteousness.   Yeshua meant real righteousness—real obedience to the commandments of the Almighty, and real love for Him, something the Scribes and Pharisees were lacking in sufficient measure as a body.   This is because much of their righteousness was done merely to please men, and not to please the Almighty.  

Yeshua could have made the comparison using Pastors, Bishops, Elders, or Theologians of Churches.   Like the Pharisees of old, what keeps them from obeying the Almighty from the heart is their traditions, traditions that are maintained by social pressure and wanting to conform and please men more than the Almighty, wanting to listen to men more than to seek the truth.   Each false doctrine they have is like an iron ball chained on them to weigh them down...their view of the Eucharist, the Sunday resurrection, Easter, Christmas, imputed righteousness, eternal torment, the undying dead doctrine.  Among the iron balls are their attachments and fear of their fellow members in the Church of Satan, which their Scribes and Pharisees have created by mistranslating and misinterpreting the Scriptures.  If anyone is a truly faithful follower of Yeshua, then they would do well to listen to Yeshua and to base their righteousness on the Scripture rather than tradition and men pleasing.  Let them leave Babylon.  For it says, come out of her My people.  He who has ears, let him hear, what the Spirit says to the congregations.

12:40 three days and three nights; "three days" before "three nights" implies a calendar day where the day precedes the night, i.e. daybreak to daybreak, which is the usual calendar day for the Scripture.  (This is not to imply that Sabbaths are reckoned by the normal calendar day.  Sabbaths are reckoned with the night preceding the day.)   If the implied calendar day was from sunset to sunset, then the text would say "three nights and three days";

The specification of days together with nights also teaches us that the days and nights are counted according to alternating daylight periods and darkness periods, three days counted separately from three nights, yet counted in pairs, day 1, night 1, day 2, night 2, day 3, night 3.

The period does not have to be a full 72 hours.   Even in English, 72 hours is not meant.  If a restaurant owner wants to take a long weekend, he may post a sign, "We will be open for only three days and three nights this week starting Monday", he does not mean 72 hours, but only the normal hours posted on the regular sign, say 11 a.m. to 10 p.m. if they specialize in lunches and dinners.   It is also clear from biblical usages elsewhere that part of a day or night may be counted as a whole number.   When it rains 40 days and 40 nights during the flood, the rain may have started sometime on the 1st day, and ended sometime on the 40th night.  Positive proof may be found in 1Samuel 30:13.  Also, one may want to check out 1Kings 12:5, 12, where three days is less than three full days.   Jeroboam and the people returned "on the third day".

The three days for Yeshua's death and resurrection are counted according to days for the peace offering (cf. Lev. 7:15), which was from daybreak to daybreak.  The same day for a peace offering, (and Yeshua is our peace offering) made in the afternoon is reckoned as that afternoon and the night following up to daybreak.   Hence a day and a night that a peace offering may be eaten, are counted as the first day and the first night.  The second day and the second night make the second calendar day, and the third day and third night make the third calendar day for the offerings of the third day.   On the third day was the first fruits offering, since Yeshua was crucified on Aviv 14 (sunrise reckoning), and raised on Aviv 16 (sunrise reckoning).

The following chart summarizes all these details: The Passion Chronology.  Messiah was crucified on a Wednesday and raised on the Sabbath before dawn.  Remember that the 16th of Aviv counted for the first fruits offering did not end until daybreak on the Sabbath, since all days except Sabbaths are counted according to a day and a night.   The Sabbath, on the other hand, is counted according to a night and a day, so the first fruits calendar day, and the Sabbath overlapped in the night portion.   Yeshua was raised on "the first of the Sabbaths" (cf. John 20:1) "while it was still dark".

26:17 concerning; They did not ask "on" the first day of unleavened bread.  They only asked with respect to the first day of unleavened bread.  There is no Greek word for "on" in the Greek text.  It is simply the dative case, which is open to interpretations.  Specifically, it is a dative of reference (cf. Daniel B. Wallace, Exegetical Syntax, pg. 144).  W.F. Albright and C.S. Mann, in the Anchor Bible Commentary for Matthew say, "It is possible to translate the Greek by 'With reference to the first day of  Unleavened Bread...' —i.e. the disciples were asking Jesus for guidance as to the procedures to be followed for the next day'" (pg. 319).  It should also be observed that it would be foolish to be asking about Passover when it is already too late for it.  The question how to prepare for Passover is asked on the 13th or 14th of Aviv, and not on the 15th!  And the disciples were seasoned Jews.  They were not novices to passover preparation.

The disciples were not stupid.  They asked about Passover just as the 14th of Nisan began, that is, "before the Passover" (John 13:1).   Further in Matthew 26:2, it is said, "after two days the Passover is coming".  Only one dinner intervenes between this and the disciples question, which would be one day, hence when the question was asked, the first day of unleavened bread was to be after just one day.   The question was asked just after sunset on Tuesday, which was the beginning of the 14th of Nisan.  The Last Super was Tuesday night, and the crucifixion the following day, Wednesday.

The Greek, τη δε πρωτη των αζυμων does not have the word "in" or "on", just the dative case, which is typically translated "to" or "for".   While in some other contexts it can mean "in" or "on", here it clearly does not, as a total contradiction would result with John 13:1 and John 19:14.

The reason this text was mistranslated to imply the question was asked on the 15th of Nisan was to bend the Passion chronology away from the Wednesday Crucifixion and the Sabbath resurrection (cf. Matthew 28:1).   It was to change the times and seasons of Messiah.

28:1a The Greek word οψε is deceivingly translated "end" or "after" by the Church.  When used with the genitive case it means later in the time period specified.  And the time period specified is "Sabbaths" (σαββατων) in the plural.  So the sense is the "later of the Sabbaths".  These were the two first Sabbaths in Passion week.  The annual Sabbath came on Thursday that year, and was called the first on account of the first day of unleavened bread.  The following weekly Sabbath was also called "first" on account of its being the first of the seven Sabbaths that were counted after the annual Sabbath (Lev. 23:15).   Matthew is designating the later of these two Sabbaths as the resurrection day.

"The genitive with Οψε and μετολιγον have become associated in meaning with υστερον τουτων [later of these], προτερον τουτων [former of these]" ([B-D-F] BLASS, 164.4, pg. 91, A Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature). And Thayer's Lexicon observes concerning the errant rendering "after": "but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after."  The editor of the Lexicon was perhaps a bit hasty with this statement.  In classical Greek there is a genitive called the ablative, that is rare in Koine Greek, which can have the sense "late [from]" in the genitive.  And some of the classical usages do bear it out.   We do not need to refute it, as we are dealing with Koine Greek.  We just need to establish that "later" in this case is the primary sense.  And Daniel B. Wallace is helpful on that.  He tells us with respect to the sense "after" that, "For example, the genitive of separation [i.e. ablative], a common idiom in the Attic dialect, is rare in the Koine. It has been replaced, by and large, by απο + genitive" (pg. 163, The Basics of New Testament Syntax).  Also, on the positive side, in addition to B-D-F above, we have the usage in Liddell and Scott cited for οψιγενη "later-born, i.e. younger", where the οψι- prefix is the same as the separate word οψε with the genitive.  Regarding the sense "after", Liddell and Scott doubt it, appending "perh." for "perhaps" to their entry.  In a similar spirit Moulton vol. III (edited by Nigel Turner), speculates "A Latinism? Just After" regarding Mt. 28:1.   So some scholars are doubtful as to the Church's attempt to foist "after" on the text, and others are willing to admit that it is rare and unusual.  

Here is a short concordance of the usage of οψε in the LXX and other citations showing that the sense later concords well and agrees with the primary sense of the word "late":

 

Gen 24:11 toward a later time, when the women fetch
Exo 30:8 And when Aaron shall light the lamps later,
Isa 5:11 who linger till later, for wine will inflame them
Jer 2:23 And know what you did later. Her voice cried
Mat 28:1 And the later of the sabbaths, at dawning for
Mar 11:19 And when later it became, he was going
Mar 13:35 cometh, either later, or at midnight, or at
Ant 16.218 he went at the later hour to refresh himself
Bdag 3.1 later of the hour decided on; from?
Bdag 3.2 he arrived later of/in/from? the mysteries;
Bdag 3.3 later of/in/from? these
Bdag 3.4 later of/in the fight
Blass 164.4a later of/in the Trojan wars
Blass 164.4b at a later hour
Blass 164.4c later of/in/from? the games
Thay 471 later of/in/from? the times of the king

 

28:1b The word σαββατων here is plural in the Greek.  This is just another detail that the Church has swept under the rug in order to deceive the world concerning the day of Yeshua's resurrection.  They have manufactured many reasonings' about how the plural "really" means singular, however they have to spin out yet more falsehoods to do it.   The problem is a question of authority.  The Church of Rome and her Protestant spin off's wants people to believe what they say.  They do not want what they say investigated and exposed.

28:1c Again the word is σαββατων, the common and ordinary word for "Sabbaths" in the plural.  Again, we do not need to disprove the meaning of "week."  We only need to establish that "Sabbaths" is the usual meaning of the word.  And anyone who has read even a little bit of Greek, or looked up σαββατων in a concordance knows that the primary sense is not "week".   However, nowhere in first century literature, that in in Philo, Josephus, or older extracts of the LXX, nor in any secular Koine or Classical Greek literature is there a single example of this word meaning "week".  Nor in any time before that.  The sense of "week" in all later documents traces its pedigree straight back to a lying source connected with the Church "fathers" who led it in the greatest apostasy of history.   One cannot redact the linguistic meaning of "week" into eight texts in the Gospels, Acts, or the Pauline writings to establish the meaning of "week".  That is circular reasoning and not proper linguistic determination of meaning.  Such a procedure assumes that the Church's claims are true to begin with.

28:1d or "one of the Sabbaths".   The Greek word μια is the cardinal number for "one" in Koine Greek.   However, it is used here as a Hebraism, and is like the word אחד, which also means "first".  The Hebrew for this whole phrase is אחת השבתות. The feminine gender of μια owes its usage to the fact that the word for "Sabbaths" in Hebrew is also feminine in gender.   The "first of the Sabbaths" is therefore a Hebraism for a specific day.   We find this in Lev. 23:15, where it says that Israel is to count seven Sabbaths after the annual Sabbath.  So the "first of the Sabbaths" is the first one of these seven Sabbaths.