Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary
What means the Preparation Day?
"42 And now having become later, because it was a preparation, which is before a Sabbath, 43 Joseph of Arimathaea, a respected member of the Council, who was also himself looking for the kingdom of God, took courage and went to Pilate and asked for the body of Yeshua." (DLT: torahtimes.org, Mark 15:42, parts of vs. 43 from ESV)
Comment: Codex Bezae reads πριν σαββατον and other important MSS read προς σαββατον, and the 27th edition of Aland reads προςαββατον. Jewish Scholar Solomon Zeitlin pointed in Studies in the Early History of Judaism, (New York: KTAV, 1973, vol. 1, pg. 210) that "Some MSS omit the words ο εστιν προσαββατον. There are no papyri covering this section of Mark. The word σαββατον is to be explained as a transliteration of the Hebrew שבתון, which means "sabbatism" and was used for feast days as well as the weekly sabbath. However, in Leviticus 23:11, 15, the annual Passover feast day is also called "the Sabbath", השבת. Zeitlin also says, "The word παρασκευη is not a Jewish technical term at all (pg. 268). Rather, the word παρασκευη, which has in Greek the meaning of preparation, became a pagan technical term for the Eve of Sabbath, as well as for the Eve of other holidays (pg. 269), (Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 51-52, 1932-33, pp. 263-271, my underlines)" (The Sabbath Resurrection, 1993, Dan Gregg). "Torrey's theory (JBL 50 [1931], 227-41) that Passover should be understood as the festival period of seven days and that John is speaking of Friday within Passover week has been refuted by S. Zeitlin, JBL (1932), 263-71 (Brown, Raymod E. The Anchor Bible: The Gospel According to John. Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Co., Inc., 1970, John 19:14, pg. 882)." Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich go on to expand on the traditional definition, but they do note "Against Torrey, SZeitlin, JBL 51, '32, 263-71."
Zeitlin replies in another place: F.F. Bruce states:The words in verse Mark 15.42, "And when even was now come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath" do not prove at all that the word parasque was used to designate Friday only, but not the eve of holidays. We clearly see from John 19.14, "and it was the parasque of the Passover" that the word parasque may refer also to the eve of the holidays. (The Jewish Quarterly Review, Vol. XLII, 1952.)
The first clear occurrence of Gk. παρασκευη in the sense of "Friday" is in the Martyrdom of Polycarp 7.1 A.D. 156 (pg. 381, note 12, The Gospel of John)."Dalman has, we believe correctly, pointed out: Neither could the author (of Jn. 19:14) have meant ... by the expression the, 'Eve of the Passover' anything other than the day which the Jews call in Hebrew, 'ereb pesah', and in Aramaic 'arubat pisha', i.e. the day which preceeded the Festival; never the Friday in the festive week, as Zahn suggests." (Jesus-Jeshua, pg. 88.) (Journal of Biblical Literature, pg. 270, Zeitlin, "The Date of the Crucifixion", 1932-33).
composed: 5/10/09.
Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary: (http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/mar1542.html)
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