Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary
"22Therefore it is considered for him as righteousness—23Yet it was not written on his account only that it is considered to him, 24but also for us to whom in the time coming it is being considered, for those faithfully trusting on the one who raised Yeshua our Adonai from the dead, 25who is given up for our transgressions, and is raised on account of accomplishing righteousness for us" (DLT: torahtimes.org, Rom. 4:22-25).
Comment: vs. 25. What is "it". God valued and esteemed Abraham's faithfulness as righteousness. For that is what it was. The aorist ελογισθη is from the LXX. On account of the imperfect ויחשבה in the MT we are bound to take it as "and it is being considered", but the aspect of the aorist requires us to reduce this to the simple present, "is considered". Gen. 15:6 is a summary statement of Abraham's constant firmness in YHWH and YHWH's constant counting of it as righteousness. vs. 24. Paul goes out of his way to use an unambiguous futuristic construction: μελλει λογιζεσθαι = in the time coming it is being considered. Here is what BDAG says about this verb, "1. to take place at a future point of time and so to be subsequent to another event, be about to...2. to be inevitable, be destined, inevitable....3. (in the) future, to come....4. delay..." (pg. 628, 3rd edition). This agrees with what Paul says in Galatians 5:5, "For we by the Spirit, from faithfulness, the hope of righteousness eagerly wait for". Imputation of Righteousness is a process that it concurrent with our faithfulness. We must wait in hope by faithfulness for the day of perfect righteousness. For at the day of His appearing he will complete the circumcision of our sinful heart (Deut. 30:6; Lev. 16:30, in רמז). vs. 25. The word δικαιωσις is merely a nominalization of the verb δικαιοω. In this case the BDAG Lexicon is poisoned by Protestant nonsense. The base sense for the noun in this case is "make righteous/just". BDAG barely pays lip service to the possibility at the end of definition 2, and dodging the obvious in definition 3 with "make free/pure ". The idea of the noun is a nominalization of "make righteous", i.e. a "righteousification". Please notice, that we are going to avoid the totally misunderstood noun "justification". [1] (more likely) The resurrection signifies that God accepted the fact that righteousness was accomplished for us on the cross, i.e. the act of paying the penalty for sin. [2] (Less likely) Paul's idea is that the resurrection life of Yeshua is to be given to us for our "righteousification", i.e. to make us righteous. This is still a progressive and future goal in the context. It is not the Catholic "made righteous" (past tense inward Gnostic mystery) or the Protestant "declared righteous" (past tense declared pseudo-perfection). This agrees with 2Cor. 5:21, "For he hath made him to be a sin offering for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God by Him". Notice that "we might be made the righteousness of God by Him" is a future subjunctive, "might be made". So "for righteousification" is God's goal for us. (DLC: torahtimes.org, Rom. 4:22-25) [3] It almost appears as if Paul is trying to say both 1 and 2, in which case we might have to translate literally, "and is raised through the righteousification of us", but I did not do so because it is translation English that is just confusing on first reading. There is often more to extract out of the Greek than can be plainly represented in English.
Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary: (http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/rom0422.html)
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